NLN Pharmacology Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Theophylline should be administered on which basis?
• Before starting cephalosporin therapy, which history is important to elicit due to potential cross-reactivity?
• A client on spironolactone should avoid which dietary modification to reduce risk of hyperkalemia?
• A nurse should monitor a client who is receiving cefotaxime sodium (Claforan) for side effects, which include
• Which of these instructions should a nurse include for a client who will take clarithromycin (Biaxin) at home?
• What reverses heparin?
• Protamine sulfate reversal of heparin is generally dosed based on what factor?
• Which statement correctly describes a serotonin syndrome risk factor?
• A child who weighs 18 kg is to receive 900 mg of an antibiotic IV q6h. The antibiotic is available in 1.5 g/vial and it is to be reconstituted to a concentration of 375 mg/mL. How many mL per dose should the child receive?
• Which example demonstrates the five rights in action?
• What is the approach to antibiotics in a patient with penicillin allergy?
• Name three common adverse effects of NSAIDs and one nursing strategy to minimize risk.
• Before giving a 5-year-old an IM injection, which action is appropriate?
• A nurse should administer prescribed fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac)
• A nurse should administer theophylline (Slo-Bid) on which basis?
• An intravenous infusion of 1 liter at 60 mL/hour will take which duration to complete?
• Which operational steps help ensure safe medication administration in a busy unit?
• In warfarin-associated bleeding, what is the first-line reversal agent?
• A client is to start on nitroglycerin for acute angina attacks. A nurse should teach the client to
• Which of the following is a common side effect to monitor when giving cefotaxime (Claforan)?
• A client who is receiving chemotherapy has these laboratory results: WBC 8,000/mm3, platelets 45,000/uL, hemoglobin 14 g/dL, hematocrit 46%. Which action should the nurse take first?
• Prior to administration of the initial antibiotic dose, a nurse should?
• Which statement about unfractionated heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin is correct?
• Which changes should a nurse expect to observe if a client has a therapeutic effect to amlodipine (Norvasc)?
• Which symptom is a side effect of pravastatin that the nurse should monitor?
• What dietary consideration is essential for patients taking warfarin?
• Why should patients on MAO inhibitors avoid tyramine-rich foods, and what could result?
• Which of the following assessments should a nurse make prior to administering terbutaline sodium (Brethine) subcutaneously?
• Distinguish pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics and explain how receptor affinity affects drug response.
• A nurse should observe a client who is taking a calcium channel blocker for side effects, which include
• What is serotonin syndrome and which drug combinations commonly cause it?
• Which statement correctly defines onset of action and its relevance to nursing care?
• A client with renal failure is prescribed several medications. Which drug should the nurse question?
• A client has an order for 150 mg of cimetidine IM. The vial contains 300 mg/2 mL. How many milliliters should be administered?
• Which finding is commonly associated with long-term phenytoin therapy?
• Naloxone after opioid overdose—monitoring needed due to re-narcotization.
• Which scenario would make ARBs the preferred choice over an ACE inhibitor?
• A nurse should instruct a client who has been taking fentanyl (Duragesic) for several weeks to
• What is a common adverse effect of inhaled corticosteroids and how can it be prevented?
• A nurse should recognize which of these client reports is a side effect related to a prescribed nitrate medication?
• A client has an order for 200 mg of cimetidine IM. The vial contains 300 mg/2 mL. How many milliliters should be administered?
• A client is to receive 1 mg of a medication. If the medication is available in a solution of 5 mg/9 mL, how many mL of the medication should the client receive?
• What was a key limitation of the old FDA pregnancy category system, and how should risk be assessed now?
• Which of these parameters should a nurse plan to monitor for a client who is receiving spironolactone (Aldactone)?
• What is the expected therapeutic effect of amlodipine (Norvasc)?
• RhoGAM is indicated for which of these patients?
• Why is monitoring trough levels important for aminoglycosides and what is the typical trough target range?
• How do ARBs differ from ACE inhibitors, and in what scenario might ARBs be preferred?
• Which adverse effect requires monitoring with ganciclovir?
• What is a loading dose and when would it be used?
• Which medication should the nurse question in a client with renal failure?
• Which symptom should be assessed before the next dose of vancomycin?
• If the total daily dose is 4000 mg in two equal doses and each tablet is 0.5 g, how many tablets are required per day?
• A client taking a beta-adrenergic blocker for hypertension should be monitored for which adverse effect?
• If a pediatric dose is 10-15 mg/kg and a 5.5 kg infant is ordered 120 mg, what should the nurse do?
• A client receiving vancomycin should be assessed for which symptom before the next dose?
• A physician orders heparin sodium (Liquaemin Sodium) 1,250 units/hour IV. The IV solution contains 25,000 units of heparin in 500 mL. A nurse should set the infusion pump to run at how many mL/hour?
• After vaccination, what is a critical safety step?
• A nurse should observe a client who is taking captopril (Capoten) for adverse effects, which include
• Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 120 mg PO stat for a fever of 102.6 F is ordered for an infant weighing 12 lb (5.5 kg). The recommended dose is 10-15 mg/kg. What action should the nurse take?
• The purpose of Kayexalate is to
• A client with renal failure is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). What is the medication’s purpose?
• What is the primary action of statins and a major adverse effect to monitor?
• A client receiving methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol) should be instructed to report which adverse effect?
• Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is contraindicated in a client with which history?
• Differentiate dihydropyridine and non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers in mechanism and a key safety concern.
• What is the immediate management of anaphylaxis after exposure to a drug or food?
• Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the rate and extent of oral drug absorption?
• Compare loop diuretics with potassium-sparing diuretics in terms of potassium balance and a nursing consideration.
• Which statement best reflects the typical hypoglycemia risk window after administration of isophane insulin (NPH)?
• Grapefruit juice can affect statin therapy in what way, and what should a patient be advised?
• A nurse should instruct a client taking isophane insulin suspension (NPH) to eat a snack at which of these times?
• Duration of action question.
• Why is a penicillin–aminoglycoside combination used in some serious infections and what monitoring is critical?
• How does formulation influence oral drug absorption?
• During PPD testing, which statement describes the correct technique to perform the test?
• A client with a history of heart failure on digoxin therapy asks why potassium levels matter. Which statement is accurate?
• What are two major risks of long-term systemic corticosteroids and one nursing action to mitigate?
• A patient weighing 66 lb (30 kg) is ordered 5 mcg/kg/min for 1 hour. How many micrograms will be delivered in 60 minutes?
• Why should nonselective beta-blockers be used with caution in patients with asthma or COPD?
• A snack should be scheduled for a patient on isophane insulin suspension (NPH) during which part of the day?
• A client is receiving sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat). Which instruction should the nurse give?
• Define half-life and describe how it influences dosing interval and steady-state concentration.
• Which statement about clarithromycin (Biaxin) at home is correct?
• ACE inhibitors commonly cause cough and hyperkalemia. Explain why and what monitoring is essential.
• How many grams are equivalent to 30 mg?
• A nurse is assessing a client who is taking glyburide (DiaBeta). Which of these manifestations indicates the need for further assessment prior to administering the scheduled dose?
• Which patient would be inappropriate to initiate an anti-hyperlipidemic medication?
• Why should metformin be withheld around radiologic procedures with iodinated contrast and when can it be resumed?
• What is the therapeutic index and why is it important in nursing practice?
• Before starting cephradine (Velosef) for a wound infection, which patient history should be questioned due to potential cross-reactivity?
• A client admitted on warfarin therapy has an INR of 1.2. What action should the nurse take first?
• A client on vancomycin should be monitored for signs of renal toxicity. Which of the following indicates such toxicity?
• Which analgesic is commonly used as an alternative to NSAIDs in pregnancy?
• Prior to administering metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), a nurse should measure which parameter?
• A nurse should plan to monitor which of these laboratory tests for a client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)?
• Name two major toxicities of aminoglycoside antibiotics and how they are monitored.
• What is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis and route?
• Buspirone (BuSpar) is classified as a which type of medication?
• Which nursing action best minimizes NSAID-related GI and renal risks?
• In the context of fetal risk assessment, what is the recommended approach?
• The total daily dosage of a medication for a client is 4,000 mg to be administered in two equal doses. The medication is available in 0.5 gm tablets. How many tablets should be given for each dose?
• A nurse on the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rh-immune globulin (RhoGAM). The nurse should recognize that this medication is indicated for which of these clients?
• A nurse teaches a client taking nadolol (Corgard) for angina about the medication's action and side effects. The nurse should evaluate that the teaching is effective if the client states that which manifestation is a side effect?
• A client with cytomegalovirus (CMV) is to start on ganciclovir (Cytovene) for retinitis. The nurse should carefully monitor for which adverse effect?
• A nurse should monitor a client, who is taking an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, for evidence of therapeutic effects, which include
• Which statement about ACE inhibitors is NOT accurate?
• An 18-month-old child who weighs 17 kg has a fever. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 15 mg/kg is ordered. How many milligrams should be given?
• Which parameter should a nurse monitor in a client taking furosemide (Lasix)?
• How should tetracyclines be spaced from antacids or iron supplements and why?
• Which reversal agent is used to reverse low-molecular-weight heparin?
• What is 900 mg in grams?
• A physician orders 40 mg of a medication IVPB to be diluted in 100 mL of D5W and administered over 2 hours. If the tubing delivers 60 drops/mL, a nurse should regulate the infusion to run at how many drops/minute?
• Warfarin works by inhibiting which of the following?
• Which option correctly describes the difference between a generic drug name and a brand name, and why equivalence matters?
• An IV infusion delivers 20 units of a medication in 1 liter of 0.9% NaCl. How many units are present per milliliter?
• When performing a purified protein derivative (PPD) test for TB, which method is correct?
• A nurse should question an order for meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) for a client who is receiving which of these medications?
• A vial contains 5 grams of an antibiotic in 20 mL of solution. If a client is to receive 250 mg, how many mL should the nurse give to the client?
• Which statement about naproxen therapy for osteoarthritis is correct?
• Why should drugs that can cause hemolysis be avoided in G6PD deficiency and give an example?
• NSAIDs in late pregnancy are associated with which risk?
• A nurse should monitor for which parameter to assess the therapeutic effect of furosemide?
• Which action is recommended when dosing medications in hepatic impairment?
• In pregnancy, NSAIDs are generally avoided in which trimester due to risk of premature closure of the ductus arteriosus and potential fetal renal issues?
• A nurse administers an intravenous fluid order for 1,000 mL over 12 hours. If the infusion is continuous, how many milliliters should be left after 7 hours?
• What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepines and what safety concerns exist?
• Nitrates treat angina by what mechanism and how is tolerance prevented?
• Which laboratory finding would indicate vancomycin-induced nephrotoxicity?
• Which of these instructions should a client take for a client who is taking phenytoin sodium (Dilantin)?
• A client is to receive 50 mL of intravenous solution in 45 minutes. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver approximately how many milliliters per hour?
• Which statement correctly describes common adverse effects of ACE inhibitors and their mechanism?
• A medication is available as a 0.5gm/5mL suspension. How many mL should a nurse administer to provide a 200mg dose?
• Which laboratory change indicates a therapeutic response to an antihyperlipidemic medication?
• Which monitoring is essential during penicillin–aminoglycoside synergy therapy?
• Which client would be least appropriate for starting an anti-hyperlipidemic medication?
• What is a major safety concern with fluoroquinolones and what counseling should be provided?
• What is the difference between full opioid agonists and partial agonists with respect to respiratory depression risk and withdrawal potential?
• A client who has been taking fentanyl (Duragesic) for several weeks should be advised to
• To administer 900 mg using a vial of 1.5 g with a concentration of 375 mg/mL, how many milliliters should be drawn for the dose?
• Which statement best describes dosing considerations for drugs in hepatic impairment?
• Which option best captures the pharmacodynamics/pharmacokinetics distinction; receptor affinity impact.
• Which location is proper for administering eye drops?
• What is the antidote for opioid overdose and what key monitoring is required after administration?
• A patient who stopped antihypertensive therapy due to concerns about sexual function should be informed that:
• A client is to receive 5 mcg/kg/min of a medication. If the client weighs 66 lb (30 kg), how many mcg should the client receive in 1 hr?
• Which observation is consistent with ACE inhibitor therapy such as captopril?
• A client taking isoniazid (INH) should be monitored for side effects which include which of the following?
• Why should tetracyclines be avoided in children and pregnant women, and what sun-exposure advice should be given?
• In life-threatening warfarin bleeding, what is used next after vitamin K?
• A nurse should assess a client who is receiving nifedipine for the development of side effects, which include
• A physician orders intravenous fluids 1,000 mL of D5NS to be administered over eight hours. If the infusion is proceeding correctly, how many milliliters should be left in the bag after six hours?
• A client is to receive an IV infusion of 1 L of D5NS. If the IV infusion pump is set to deliver 60 mL/hr, the infusion will be completed in 16 hours and which of the following?
• Which medication should be readily available to treat a bethanechol-induced cholinergic crisis?
• List two major adverse effects of opioids beyond respiratory depression and one patient education point.
• Which vaccines are particularly recommended during pregnancy and why?
• Which of the following lists identifies the five rights of medication administration?
• Which test is essential to monitor during warfarin therapy?
• Isophane insulin suspension (NPH, Humulin N) requires monitoring for hypoglycemia. How many hours after administration is this most likely to occur?
• Which adverse effect is listed for methylprednisolone in the following options?
• A client taking pravastatin (Pravachol) should be advised to monitor for which potential side effect?
• A client on bethanechol may develop a cholinergic crisis. Which medication should be readily available to treat this condition?
• What is the typical INR goal for many conditions treated with warfarin?
• Which vaccine type is generally avoided during pregnancy?
• A client is receiving an IV solution of 20,000 units of heparin in 1 L of D5W at a rate of 125 mL/hr. How many units per hour is the client receiving?
• Before intravenous administration of potassium chloride, which parameter should be measured?
• Which statement is NOT a typical adverse effect to monitor with ACE inhibitors?
• Which statement best describes the risk of angioedema with ARBs compared with ACE inhibitors?
• Which of the following is a common adverse effect of nifedipine?
• A client is to receive 1 L of Ringer's lactate intravenously. If the infusion pump is set to deliver 80 mL/hr, the infusion will complete in about how many hours?
• Which of these statements, if made by a client who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin), should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the medication instructions?
• Which statement best describes the clinical significance of bioavailability and first-pass metabolism?
• When preparing to give a 5-year-old an intramuscular injection, which action is best?
• Which statement about naproxen therapy for osteoarthritis is correct?
• What is a major adverse effect of amphotericin B and a nursing intervention to prevent it?
• Which electrolyte abnormality increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?
• What is the volume of distribution and how does it affect loading dose calculations?
• Before administering vaccines, what assessment is essential to ensure safety?