NLN Pharmacology Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which patient would be inappropriate to initiate an anti-hyperlipidemic medication?
• Nitrates treat angina by what mechanism and how is tolerance prevented?
• A nurse should question an order for meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) for a client who is receiving which of these medications?
• A client is receiving sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat). Which instruction should the nurse give?
• Which reversal agent is used to reverse low-molecular-weight heparin?
• Which electrolyte abnormality increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?
• A client is to receive 1 mg of a medication. If the medication is available in a solution of 5 mg/9 mL, how many mL of the medication should the client receive?
• Which vaccine type is generally avoided during pregnancy?
• A client is to receive an IV infusion of 1 L of D5NS. If the IV infusion pump is set to deliver 60 mL/hr, the infusion will be completed in 16 hours and which of the following?
• A nurse is assessing a client who is taking glyburide (DiaBeta). Which of these manifestations indicates the need for further assessment prior to administering the scheduled dose?
• In pregnancy, NSAIDs are generally avoided in which trimester due to risk of premature closure of the ductus arteriosus and potential fetal renal issues?
• Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 120 mg PO stat for a fever of 102.6 F is ordered for an infant weighing 12 lb (5.5 kg). The recommended dose is 10-15 mg/kg. What action should the nurse take?
• Which of these statements, if made by a client who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin), should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the medication instructions?
• A nurse should administer theophylline (Slo-Bid) on which basis?
• Which statement correctly defines onset of action and its relevance to nursing care?
• Which analgesic is commonly used as an alternative to NSAIDs in pregnancy?
• Which action is recommended when dosing medications in hepatic impairment?
• Which symptom is a side effect of pravastatin that the nurse should monitor?
• A nurse should recognize which of these client reports is a side effect related to a prescribed nitrate medication?
• Prior to administering metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), a nurse should measure which parameter?
• Which vaccines are particularly recommended during pregnancy and why?
• What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepines and what safety concerns exist?
• A client with renal failure is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). What is the medication’s purpose?
• Which nursing action best minimizes NSAID-related GI and renal risks?
• Grapefruit juice can affect statin therapy in what way, and what should a patient be advised?
• A vial contains 5 grams of an antibiotic in 20 mL of solution. If a client is to receive 250 mg, how many mL should the nurse give to the client?
• Naloxone after opioid overdose—monitoring needed due to re-narcotization.
• What is a major safety concern with fluoroquinolones and what counseling should be provided?
• NSAIDs in late pregnancy are associated with which risk?
• A nurse should monitor a client, who is taking an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, for evidence of therapeutic effects, which include
• A physician orders 40 mg of a medication IVPB to be diluted in 100 mL of D5W and administered over 2 hours. If the tubing delivers 60 drops/mL, a nurse should regulate the infusion to run at how many drops/minute?
• Prior to administration of the initial antibiotic dose, a nurse should?
• A physician orders intravenous fluids 1,000 mL of D5NS to be administered over eight hours. If the infusion is proceeding correctly, how many milliliters should be left in the bag after six hours?
• A nurse teaches a client taking nadolol (Corgard) for angina about the medication's action and side effects. The nurse should evaluate that the teaching is effective if the client states that which manifestation is a side effect?
• How should tetracyclines be spaced from antacids or iron supplements and why?
• The purpose of Kayexalate is to
• Which laboratory change indicates a therapeutic response to an antihyperlipidemic medication?
• Distinguish pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics and explain how receptor affinity affects drug response.
• What is the difference between full opioid agonists and partial agonists with respect to respiratory depression risk and withdrawal potential?
• Which location is proper for administering eye drops?
• A client with cytomegalovirus (CMV) is to start on ganciclovir (Cytovene) for retinitis. The nurse should carefully monitor for which adverse effect?
• After vaccination, what is a critical safety step?
• What dietary consideration is essential for patients taking warfarin?
• What are two major risks of long-term systemic corticosteroids and one nursing action to mitigate?
• How do ARBs differ from ACE inhibitors, and in what scenario might ARBs be preferred?
• Buspirone (BuSpar) is classified as a which type of medication?
• A physician orders heparin sodium (Liquaemin Sodium) 1,250 units/hour IV. The IV solution contains 25,000 units of heparin in 500 mL. A nurse should set the infusion pump to run at how many mL/hour?
• Which client would be least appropriate for starting an anti-hyperlipidemic medication?
• What is a loading dose and when would it be used?
• Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is contraindicated in a client with which history?
• Before starting cephalosporin therapy, which history is important to elicit due to potential cross-reactivity?
• A client is to receive 5 mcg/kg/min of a medication. If the client weighs 66 lb (30 kg), how many mcg should the client receive in 1 hr?
• A patient weighing 66 lb (30 kg) is ordered 5 mcg/kg/min for 1 hour. How many micrograms will be delivered in 60 minutes?
• In the context of fetal risk assessment, what is the recommended approach?
• If a pediatric dose is 10-15 mg/kg and a 5.5 kg infant is ordered 120 mg, what should the nurse do?
• A client with renal failure is prescribed several medications. Which drug should the nurse question?
• A snack should be scheduled for a patient on isophane insulin suspension (NPH) during which part of the day?
• Which changes should a nurse expect to observe if a client has a therapeutic effect to amlodipine (Norvasc)?
• Which statement about naproxen therapy for osteoarthritis is correct?
• A client is to receive 50 mL of intravenous solution in 45 minutes. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver approximately how many milliliters per hour?
• A client has an order for 150 mg of cimetidine IM. The vial contains 300 mg/2 mL. How many milliliters should be administered?
• Before starting cephradine (Velosef) for a wound infection, which patient history should be questioned due to potential cross-reactivity?
• Which statement is NOT a typical adverse effect to monitor with ACE inhibitors?
• List two major adverse effects of opioids beyond respiratory depression and one patient education point.
• What is the immediate management of anaphylaxis after exposure to a drug or food?
• An 18-month-old child who weighs 17 kg has a fever. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 15 mg/kg is ordered. How many milligrams should be given?
• Why should nonselective beta-blockers be used with caution in patients with asthma or COPD?
• Which adverse effect requires monitoring with ganciclovir?
• Theophylline should be administered on which basis?
• In warfarin-associated bleeding, what is the first-line reversal agent?
• A nurse should instruct a client taking isophane insulin suspension (NPH) to eat a snack at which of these times?
• When performing a purified protein derivative (PPD) test for TB, which method is correct?
• Warfarin works by inhibiting which of the following?
• Which statement correctly describes a serotonin syndrome risk factor?
• How does formulation influence oral drug absorption?
• Which finding is commonly associated with long-term phenytoin therapy?
• Isophane insulin suspension (NPH, Humulin N) requires monitoring for hypoglycemia. How many hours after administration is this most likely to occur?
• What is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis and route?
• Which statement about ACE inhibitors is NOT accurate?
• What is the approach to antibiotics in a patient with penicillin allergy?
• Which statement about clarithromycin (Biaxin) at home is correct?
• Why should drugs that can cause hemolysis be avoided in G6PD deficiency and give an example?
• Which of the following is a common adverse effect of nifedipine?
• What is the expected therapeutic effect of amlodipine (Norvasc)?
• Which medication should the nurse question in a client with renal failure?
• Which statement best reflects the typical hypoglycemia risk window after administration of isophane insulin (NPH)?
• Which operational steps help ensure safe medication administration in a busy unit?
• Define half-life and describe how it influences dosing interval and steady-state concentration.
• A nurse should administer prescribed fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac)
• A client has an order for 200 mg of cimetidine IM. The vial contains 300 mg/2 mL. How many milliliters should be administered?
• A client receiving vancomycin should be assessed for which symptom before the next dose?
• RhoGAM is indicated for which of these patients?
• Which monitoring is essential during penicillin–aminoglycoside synergy therapy?
• A client on spironolactone should avoid which dietary modification to reduce risk of hyperkalemia?
• A client is to start on nitroglycerin for acute angina attacks. A nurse should teach the client to
• Which of the following assessments should a nurse make prior to administering terbutaline sodium (Brethine) subcutaneously?
• Which statement best describes dosing considerations for drugs in hepatic impairment?
• What is 900 mg in grams?
• A client is to receive 1 L of Ringer's lactate intravenously. If the infusion pump is set to deliver 80 mL/hr, the infusion will complete in about how many hours?
• Which statement about unfractionated heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin is correct?
• Which option best captures the pharmacodynamics/pharmacokinetics distinction; receptor affinity impact.
• What is the antidote for opioid overdose and what key monitoring is required after administration?
• Why is monitoring trough levels important for aminoglycosides and what is the typical trough target range?
• A patient who stopped antihypertensive therapy due to concerns about sexual function should be informed that:
• A client taking a beta-adrenergic blocker for hypertension should be monitored for which adverse effect?
• Why is a penicillin–aminoglycoside combination used in some serious infections and what monitoring is critical?
• What is the volume of distribution and how does it affect loading dose calculations?
• A nurse should monitor a client who is receiving cefotaxime sodium (Claforan) for side effects, which include
• Which observation is consistent with ACE inhibitor therapy such as captopril?
• An intravenous infusion of 1 liter at 60 mL/hour will take which duration to complete?
• Name three common adverse effects of NSAIDs and one nursing strategy to minimize risk.
• An IV infusion delivers 20 units of a medication in 1 liter of 0.9% NaCl. How many units are present per milliliter?
• A client who is receiving chemotherapy has these laboratory results: WBC 8,000/mm3, platelets 45,000/uL, hemoglobin 14 g/dL, hematocrit 46%. Which action should the nurse take first?
• During PPD testing, which statement describes the correct technique to perform the test?
• Differentiate dihydropyridine and non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers in mechanism and a key safety concern.
• Which scenario would make ARBs the preferred choice over an ACE inhibitor?
• What is the primary action of statins and a major adverse effect to monitor?
• A nurse should observe a client who is taking captopril (Capoten) for adverse effects, which include
• Which of these instructions should a nurse include for a client who will take clarithromycin (Biaxin) at home?
• Which of the following is a common side effect to monitor when giving cefotaxime (Claforan)?
• Which parameter should a nurse monitor in a client taking furosemide (Lasix)?
• What was a key limitation of the old FDA pregnancy category system, and how should risk be assessed now?
• Which statement correctly describes common adverse effects of ACE inhibitors and their mechanism?
• Before administering vaccines, what assessment is essential to ensure safety?
• How many grams are equivalent to 30 mg?
• A nurse should assess a client who is receiving nifedipine for the development of side effects, which include
• Compare loop diuretics with potassium-sparing diuretics in terms of potassium balance and a nursing consideration.
• A nurse should monitor for which parameter to assess the therapeutic effect of furosemide?
• A medication is available as a 0.5gm/5mL suspension. How many mL should a nurse administer to provide a 200mg dose?
• Which of these instructions should a client take for a client who is taking phenytoin sodium (Dilantin)?
• Which symptom should be assessed before the next dose of vancomycin?
• If the total daily dose is 4000 mg in two equal doses and each tablet is 0.5 g, how many tablets are required per day?
• A nurse should observe a client who is taking a calcium channel blocker for side effects, which include
• A nurse on the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rh-immune globulin (RhoGAM). The nurse should recognize that this medication is indicated for which of these clients?
• A nurse should instruct a client who has been taking fentanyl (Duragesic) for several weeks to
• A client on bethanechol may develop a cholinergic crisis. Which medication should be readily available to treat this condition?
• What is the typical INR goal for many conditions treated with warfarin?
• Before intravenous administration of potassium chloride, which parameter should be measured?
• Duration of action question.
• Which laboratory finding would indicate vancomycin-induced nephrotoxicity?
• A client taking pravastatin (Pravachol) should be advised to monitor for which potential side effect?
• A nurse should plan to monitor which of these laboratory tests for a client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)?
• Why should patients on MAO inhibitors avoid tyramine-rich foods, and what could result?
• Which of the following lists identifies the five rights of medication administration?
• A child who weighs 18 kg is to receive 900 mg of an antibiotic IV q6h. The antibiotic is available in 1.5 g/vial and it is to be reconstituted to a concentration of 375 mg/mL. How many mL per dose should the child receive?
• Which test is essential to monitor during warfarin therapy?
• Which option correctly describes the difference between a generic drug name and a brand name, and why equivalence matters?
• Name two major toxicities of aminoglycoside antibiotics and how they are monitored.
• A client admitted on warfarin therapy has an INR of 1.2. What action should the nurse take first?
• To administer 900 mg using a vial of 1.5 g with a concentration of 375 mg/mL, how many milliliters should be drawn for the dose?
• A client with a history of heart failure on digoxin therapy asks why potassium levels matter. Which statement is accurate?
• In life-threatening warfarin bleeding, what is used next after vitamin K?
• Which statement best describes the clinical significance of bioavailability and first-pass metabolism?
• A client taking isoniazid (INH) should be monitored for side effects which include which of the following?
• Which statement about naproxen therapy for osteoarthritis is correct?
• What is serotonin syndrome and which drug combinations commonly cause it?
• ACE inhibitors commonly cause cough and hyperkalemia. Explain why and what monitoring is essential.
• A client on vancomycin should be monitored for signs of renal toxicity. Which of the following indicates such toxicity?
• Which medication should be readily available to treat a bethanechol-induced cholinergic crisis?
• Which statement best describes the risk of angioedema with ARBs compared with ACE inhibitors?
• Before giving a 5-year-old an IM injection, which action is appropriate?
• Why should metformin be withheld around radiologic procedures with iodinated contrast and when can it be resumed?
• Which of these parameters should a nurse plan to monitor for a client who is receiving spironolactone (Aldactone)?
• Protamine sulfate reversal of heparin is generally dosed based on what factor?
• Which example demonstrates the five rights in action?
• What is the therapeutic index and why is it important in nursing practice?
• A client is receiving an IV solution of 20,000 units of heparin in 1 L of D5W at a rate of 125 mL/hr. How many units per hour is the client receiving?
• The total daily dosage of a medication for a client is 4,000 mg to be administered in two equal doses. The medication is available in 0.5 gm tablets. How many tablets should be given for each dose?
• Which adverse effect is listed for methylprednisolone in the following options?
• A nurse administers an intravenous fluid order for 1,000 mL over 12 hours. If the infusion is continuous, how many milliliters should be left after 7 hours?
• A client receiving methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol) should be instructed to report which adverse effect?
• What is a major adverse effect of amphotericin B and a nursing intervention to prevent it?
• Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the rate and extent of oral drug absorption?
• When preparing to give a 5-year-old an intramuscular injection, which action is best?
• What is a common adverse effect of inhaled corticosteroids and how can it be prevented?
• What reverses heparin?
• A client who has been taking fentanyl (Duragesic) for several weeks should be advised to
• Why should tetracyclines be avoided in children and pregnant women, and what sun-exposure advice should be given?